1. After transferring care of your patient to the emergency department physician, he tells you that he suspects the patient has suffered from a comminuted fracture. What does this mean?
A.The bone was fractured at the growth plate.
B.The fracture was incomplete and passes partway through the bone.
C.The fractured bone was broken in more than two fragments.
D.The bone was diseased and weakened, which led to the fracture.


2. Bones are able to move because they are attached to:
A.tubular muscles.
B.smooth muscles.
C.voluntary muscles.
D.involuntary muscles.


3. The bone in the thigh that connects with the tibia at the knee is called the:
A.talus.
B.femur.
C.radius.
D.humerus.


4. Skeletal muscle is also referred to as:
A.striated muscle.
B.smooth muscle.
C.involuntary muscle.
D.autonomic muscle.


5. A fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone is called a/an:
A.epiphyseal fracture.
B.metaphyseal fracture.
C.diaphyseal fracture.
D.greenstick fracture.


6. Atrophy of a muscle can result when which of the following occurs?
A.The muscle is exercised regularly.
B.There is a loss of a muscle's nervous energy.
C.The tendons become stretched beyond their normal range.
D.The underlying bone is weakened by osteoporosis.


7. Which of the following materials covers the ends of bones where motion occurs?
A.Periosteum
B.Compact bone
C.Cancellous bone
D.Articular cartilage


8. The bones that make up the lower leg are called the:
A.tibia and the fibula.
B.tibia and the femur.
C.radius and the ulna.
D.fibula and the ulna.


9. One of the functions of the skeletal system is to:
A.transmit messages between the brain and the body.
B.nourish and carry oxygen to different parts of the body.
C.control the discharge of waste materials filtered from the blood.
D.serve as a reservoir for calcium, phosphorus, and other body chemicals.


10. The human skeleton is made up of approximately how many bones?
A.150
B.200
C.250
D.300


11. Partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends and partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments is descriptive of a:
A.strain.
B.sprain.
C.nondisplaced fracture.
D.closed, partial fracture.


12. Which of the following bones is one of those most commonly injured in the body?
A.Clavicle
B.Scapula
C.Phalanges
D.Metacarpals


13. If a person has suffered from a disruption in the continuity of a bone, he or she has suffered from a:
A.fracture.
B.dislocation.
C.sprain.
D.strain.


14. When an air splint is exposed to extreme temperature changes, the air pressure in the splint:
A.decreases in cold air.
B.decreases in warm air.
C.increases in cold air.
D.remains the same in cold or warm air.


15. When splinting an extremity with a wound associated with an open fracture, you should:
A.avoid dressing the wound.
B.dress the wound before applying the splint.
C.irrigate the wound before applying a dressing.
D.allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing.


16. A 50-year-old woman was involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash. When you assess her, you note that she has multiple musculoskeletal injuries including a closed fracture of the left ring finger, an open fracture to the left forearm, bilateral fractures of the tibia/fibula, and a dislocated right elbow. Which of the following injuries poses the greatest risk to this patient?
A.The open fracture of the left forearm
B.The bilateral tibia/fibula fractures
C.The dislocated right elbow
D.The closed-finger fracture


17. The first step in assessing tenderness over the pelvis in a patient believed to have a pelvic fracture is to:
A.gently move the knees toward the chest.
B.press down on the abdomen to determine whether any tenderness is produced.
C.place your hands over the lateral aspect of the iliac crests and apply inward pressure.
D.place your hands on top of the pelvic area and gently lift the pelvis from side to side.


18. While running in a marathon, a 30-year-old man fell and landed on his elbow. The patient complains of intense pain and states that he feels as though his elbow is "locked." This is most characteristic of a:
A.dislocation.
B.fracture.
C.sprain.
D.strain.


19. A young female has suffered from a suspected fracture of the left femur. A distal pulse is present, and both motor and sensory functions are intact. There is severe deformity to the midshaft femur. In caring for this patient, you should:
A.splint the injury in the position found.
B.manipulate the bone ends to assess for crepitus.
C.apply constant, gentle traction to facilitate splinting.
D.reassess the pulse at the femoral artery.


20. A patient who is lying on the ground with his left leg bent out to the side appears to have a deformed knee. He is in extreme pain and states that he cannot move the leg. On assessment, you find that the patient has strong distal pulses. You should prepare the patient for transport by:
A.wrapping the leg with a pillow.
B.splinting the leg in the position in which it is found.
C.straightening the leg and applying and inflating an air splint.
D.straightening the leg and applying two standard rigid leg splints.


21. When caring for a patient with a suspected extremity fracture, you should:
A.move the limb across the body to provide support.
B.move the limb to determine the severity of the fracture.
C.splint the part first, then control bleeding in open fractures.
D.splint the part in the position in which you find it, whenever possible.


22. The principal purpose of splinting a fracture is to:
A.reduce the fracture if possible.
B.prevent motion of bony fragments.
C.immobilize only the most serious fractures.
D.force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment.


23. A fracture of the humeral shaft is most commonly immobilized with which of the following devices?
A.Air splint
B.Sager traction splint
C.Padded wire ladder or Sam splint
D.Padded board splint with a sling and swathe


24. A severely angulated fracture is considered serious because the angulation is likely to:
A.cause the patient severe pain.
B.result in shortening of the limb.
C.make transport of the patient difficult.
D.pinch or cut nerves and blood vessels.


25. The goals of providing in-line traction of a fractured bone include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.to align the limb sufficiently so that it can be splinted.
B.to stabilize the fractured fragments to prevent excessive movement.
C.to avoid potential or further neurovascular compromise.
D.to ensure that you pull approximately 25 lb of force.


26. You are caring for a patient with a closed fracture of the tibia. One of the main reasons for splinting is to prevent:
A.shock.
B.infection.
C.hemorrhage.
D.a closed fracture from becoming an open fracture.


27. To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply:
A.a sling and swathe.
B.an air splint over the entire arm.
C.a traction splint to the arm of the injured side.
D.a rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling.


28. Which of the following assessments requires that the patient be alert and cooperative?
A.Monitoring capillary refill
B.Monitoring the distal pulses
C.Assessing false motion
D.Assessing sensation and motor function


29. A woman appears to have fractures of the left leg and arm as a result of a head-on collision. The patient is conscious and states that her "stomach hurts." During your assessment, you notice a bloody discharge from the urethreal area. You should prepare the patient for transport by immobilizing her on a:
A.long backboard.
B.long backboard with a PASG in place.
C.stretcher with her leg and arm supported with pillows.
D.stretcher with her leg in a traction splint and her arm in a sling.


30. After an extremity fracture is splinted, you should continually monitor the pulses:
A.in the uninjured limb only.
B.at the site of the injury.
C.distal to the site of the injury.
D.proximal to the site of the injury.


31. A 53-year-old man leaps from a third-floor apartment window to escape a fire. The man tumbles in midair but manages to land on his feet. The most appropriate course of action is to first:
A.assess the patient thoroughly for third-degree burns.
B.assess and treat the patient for possible lower extremity and spinal fractures.
C.treat any serious cuts and burns, then transport the patient to the hospital.
D.ask the patient to come over to the ambulance immediately so that he can be examined.


32. Proper immobilization of a fractured knee would include the:
A.knee and femur only.
B.knee, tibia, and fibula.
C.ankle, tibia, fibula, and femur.
D.ankle, tibia, fibula, femur, and hip.


33. Treatment of a suspected extremity fracture should include:
A.elevating the limb above the level of the heart.
B.realigning the limb into normal anatomic alignment.
C.splinting the injured bone, along with the joints above and below it.
D.moving the limb to determine the extent and severity of the fracture.


34. The best way to splint a fractured foot is with a:
A.sling and swathe.
B.pillow splint.
C.ladder splint.
D.traction splint.


35. Fractures of the femur are typically immobilized with:
A.an air splint.
B.a traction splint.
C.a ladder splint.
D.a long backboard.



This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.