1.	Gastric distention during artificial ventilation is considered dangerous because it can: A. stimulate hyperventilation. B. result in bacterial pneumonia. C. cause the patient to vomit during CPR. D. increase lung volume by elevating the diaphragm.

2.	Which of the following diseases would the EMT-B be MOST likely to be infected with while performing mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device? A. HIV B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Tuberculosis

3.	After a patient stops breathing, what is the MAXIMUM period of time in which brain damage is not likely? A. 2 minutes B. 4 minutes C. 6 minutes D. 8 minutes

4.	A patient who is pulseless for more than 6 minutes is most likely to have: A. angina. B. a stroke. C. brain damage. D. congestive heart failure.

5.	Early, effective basic life support measures are NOT likely to resuscitate a patient who has: A. dependent lividity. B. been struck by lightning. C. a foreign body obstruction. D. had a near-drowning accident.

6.	Which of the following is considered a basic life support skill? A. Starting IV fluids B. Cardiac monitoring C. Heimlich maneuver D. Manual defibrillation

7.

You assess a 56-year-old man and find him to be pulseless and apneic. As you begin CPR, the man's wife presents you with a living will that has been signed by the patient. How should this situation be handled? A. Respect the patient's wishes and cease resuscitative efforts. B. Obtain a signed release from the wife and then stop CPR. C. Continue CPR and contact medical control for advice. D. Stop CPR if the patient does not respond within 5 minutes.

8.

You are called to a local supermarket for a patient who is not breathing. Upon arrival, you confirm cardiac arrest and attach an AED, which states, "no shock advised." Shortly after starting CPR, a man, who identifies himself as a physician, presents a valid medical license and assumes responsibility for the patient. After 5 minutes of CPR, the physician advises you to stop CPR. What should you do? A. Politely dismiss the man from the scene and continue resuscitation efforts. B. Stop CPR, as he is a licensed physician and has accepted full responsibility. C. Advise the physician that you must see a wall-mounted certificate of his credential. D. Tell the physician that since he has assumed responsibility, he must resume CPR.

9.	For a patient who is not a trauma victim, which of the following positions facilitates spontaneous breathing and allows secretions to drain from the mouth? A. Supine position B. Recovery position C. Resuscitation position D. Trendelenburg's position

10.

As you approach an unconscious adult male, you can hear that he has snoring respirations. What should you do FIRST? A. Begin assisted ventilations with a pocket mask. B. Assess for the presence of a carotid pulse. C. Open his airway with a head-tilt chin lift. D. Attach an AED and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

11.	Which of the following maneuvers should be used first in opening the airway of a patient who does not have a suspected neck injury? A. Sellick maneuver B. Head tilt-chin lift maneuver C. Heimlich maneuver D. Jaw-thrust maneuver

12.

You are called to a local nursing care facility for a patient who "has expired." When you assess her, you note that her jaw, arms, and legs are rigid. As you roll her over, you note the presence of a purplish color to her upper and lower back. How should you proceed with this situation? A. Notify the police and report possible elderly abuse. B. Call medical control and advise him or her of an obvious death. C. Begin CPR and transport the patient to the hospital immediately. D. Attach an AED and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm.

13.	For CPR to be effective, the patient must be placed on a firm surface in what position? A. Prone B. Vertical C. Supine D. Side-lying

14.	Airway obstruction will often develop in an unconscious patient when there is a relaxation of the: A. uvula. B. tongue. C. chest wall. D. diaphragm.

15.	Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause an airway obstruction? A. Vomitus B. Blood clots C. Nasal flaring D. Loose dentures

16.	The jaw-thrust maneuver is best performed when you are positioned: A. kneeling above the patient's head. B. lying parallel to the patient's body. C. straddling the patient's hips. D. squatting next to the patient's knees.

17.	The MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in children younger than the age of 9 is: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. massive trauma. C. respiratory arrest. D. accidental poisoning.

18.	Adequate artificial ventilation requires giving breaths that last for about how many seconds? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

19.	During mouth-to-mask ventilation, without use of supplemental oxygen, exhaled air from the rescuer contains about what percentage of oxygen? A. 16% B. 21% C. 26% D. 35%

20.	Which of the following ventilation techniques should be used for a patient who has had a laryngectomy? A. Mouth-to-nose B. Mouth-to-mask C. Mouth-to-stoma D. Mouth-to-mouth

21.	What is one of the most common side effects of artificial ventilation? A. Putrefaction B. Acute epiglottitis C. Seesaw breathing D. Gastric distention

22.	What is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for two-rescuer adult CPR? A. 1:5 B. 2:15 C. 5:1 D. 15:2

23.	What is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for one-rescuer adult CPR? A. 1:5 B. 2:15 C. 5:1 D. 15:2

24.	Sudden foreign body airway obstruction in adults usually occurs during: A. meals. B. nightmares. C. panic attacks. D. athletic activity.

25.	While sitting on his couch watching television, a man suddenly loses consciousness. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to cause his sudden unconsciousness? A. Sudden cardiac death B. Foreign-body obstruction C. Fainting due to lack of oxygen D. A cerebrovascular accident

26.	What are the two manual maneuvers that are recommended for relieving foreign body airway obstruction in conscious adults? A. Precordial thumps and back blows B. Precordial thumps and finger sweeps C. Abdominal thrusts and back blows D. Abdominal thrusts

27.

A patient suddenly stands up from the dinner table and begins to cough forcefully. He remains conscious as he is coughing. What is the MOST appropriate action for an EMT-B or bystander to take? A. Immediately perform abdominal thrusts. B. Visualize the patient's mouth for an obstruction. C. Perform a series of five back blows. D. Encourage the patient to cough.

28.

When attempting to relieve a complete foreign-body airway obstruction in an infant, you should: A. perform blind finger sweeps in between attempts. B. open the mouth with a tongue-jaw lift to look in the mouth. C. perform 15 back blows and five chest thrusts without a finger sweep. D. administer five abdominal thrusts and five chest thrusts.

29.	What is the appropriate ratio of compressions to relaxations during adult CPR? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1

30.	Which pulse should you palpate in an infant to assess the quality of the pulse? A. Radial B. Carotid C. Brachial D. Popliteal

31.	The proper way to perform chest compressions on an infant is with: A. two fingers placed on the xyphoid process. B. two fingers placed on the lower half of the sternum. C. the heel of one hand placed at midsternum. D. the heel of one hand placed on the lower sternum.

32.	The minimum chest compression rate for infants and children is: A. 60 per minute. B. 75 per minute. C. 100 per minute. D. 125 per minute.

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